The standard input encoding for Western Europe (pending the arrival of Unicode) is ISO 8859-1 (commonly known by the standard's subtitle 'Latin-1'). Latin-1 is remarkably close, in the codepoints it covers, to the (La)TeX T1 encoding.
In this circumstance, why should one bother with inputenc and fontenc? Since they're pretty exactly mirroring each other, one could do away with both, and use just t1enc, despite its shortcomings.
One doesn't do this for a variety of small reasons:
ß
" is somewhat startling, since T1
and Latin-1 treat the codepoint differently.
\'
e
rather than typing é
; only fontenc
has the means to convert this LaTeX sequence into the T1
character, so an \
accent
primitive slips through into the
output, and hyphenation is in danger.
This question on the Web: http://www.tex.ac.uk/cgi-bin/texfaq2html?label=why-inp-font